Đề minh họa thi vào 10 môn Tiếng Anh Hiệp Đức Quảng Nam 2025 có đáp án

Bộ đề tham khảo ôn thi vào 10 môn Tiếng Anh Hiệp Đức Quảng Nam

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Hiệp Đức Quảng Nam 2025 là tài liệu quan trọng giúp học sinh lớp 9 rèn luyện kỹ năng, đánh giá năng lực và làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi chính thức. Với độ khó được thiết kế sát với đề thi tuyển sinh thực tế, đề thi thử giúp học sinh củng cố kiến thức, luyện tốc độ làm bài và chuẩn bị tâm lý vững vàng trước kỳ thi. Trong bài viết này, chúng tôi cung cấp bộ đề thi thử vào 10 môn Tiếng Anh Quảng Nam 2025 mới nhất giúp học sinh tự ôn luyện hiệu quả tại nhà.

• Đề luyện thi vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Phú Thọ
• Bộ đề minh họa Tiếng Anh 2025 vào 10 Hải Phòng

Đề tham khảo thi lớp 10 môn Anh Hiệp Đức Quảng Nam

Dưới đây là 7 đề minh thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Hiệp Đức Quảng Nam có đáp án chi tiết, mời các bạn cùng tham khảo.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM ĐỀ MINH HOẠ

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2025 - 2026 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chung) Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Khóa thi ngày: …/ …/ 2025

SECTION ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 pt)

PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.6 pts)

1. A. family	B. natural	C. travel	D. destination
2. A. holidays	B. tickets	C. tours	D. models
3. A. unique	B. university	C. unusual	D. uniform

PART 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions (0.4 pts)

4. A. bilingual	B. concentric	C. connection	D. entity
5. A. information	B. administer	C. facility	D. domestic

SECTION TWO: USE OF ENGLISH (5.0 pts)

PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 pts)

6. While we were having dinner at the restaurant, the waiter accidentally ______ a tray of food on the floor

A. drop B. dropped C. drops D. has dropped

7. My teacher advised me ______ harder if I wanted to pass the exam.

A. study B. studying C. to study D. to studying

8. I can’t decide …………… to ask for advice.

A. who B. where C. how D. what

9. The more you practice speaking English, the ______ you become.

A. fluent B. fluently C. more fluent D. more fluently

10. It is important to ______ regular exercise to stay healthy.

A. take B. make C. do D. have

11. The government is trying to ______ down on pollution by implementing new laws.

A. give B. cut C. take D. set

12. Tom: What do you think of your new classmate?

Anna: He’s very friendly. ...................... ______

A. He’s a sociable person. B. He’s a quiet person.

C. He’s a strict person. D. He’s a rude person.

13. The invention of solar panels was a major ______ to renewable energy.

A. conclusion B. contribution C. conservation D. construction

14. We need to ______ a decision as soon as possible.

A. do B. take C. bring D. make

15. ______ I was very tired, I stayed up late to finish my work.

A. Since B. Although C. Because D. But

16. Sarah loves her job because it is ______ and full of new ideas.

A. demanding B. boring C. creative D. stressful

17. That’s the woman ______ son won the national math competition.

A. whose B. who C. whom D. which

18. After living in Singapore for several years, she has picked______ some Singaporean English.

A. over B. out C. into D. up

19. My sister enjoys ______ time with her friends at the weekend.

A. to spend B. spending C. spend D. spent

20. You ______ wear a helmet when riding a motorbike. It’s the law.

A. can B. must C. may D. might

21. The stadium was completely ______ with fans cheering for their team.

A. interested B. covered C. packed D. populated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.

22. My parents bought me an I pad whoseI usually use to learn English.

                           A              B                C                          D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

23. He has a challengingjob, so he has to make every effort to do his best.

A. difficult B. demanding C. easy D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

24. Domesticchores will no longer be a burden thanks to the inventions of laborsaving devices.

A.Official B.Household C. Foreign D. Schooling

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange.

A:Could you show me the way to the bus stop, please?

B:______________________________

A. No, I couldn’t. B. Sure. It’s over there.

C. Yes, I could. D. I know where it is.

PART 2: Supply the correct form of the words in bold in brackets to complete each of the following sentences. (1.0 pt)

26. They enjoy the _____________ atmosphere here. (PEACE)

27. When visiting a new city, I like to try local _____________ to experience the culture. (SPECIAL)

28. There is a _______ site near our house, so it's quite noisy. (CONSTRUCT)

29. My neighbourhood is not the best place, but it's _______. (LIVE)

30. My teacher had to separate the two friends because they tend to _____________ each other in class. (DISTRACTION)

SECTION THREE: READING (2.0 pts)

PART 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best fits each of numbered blanks from 31 to 35. (0) is an example. (1.0 pt)

Mount Everest (Mt. Everest) is the highest mountain (31) _____ the world. It is 8,848 metres high. Mt. Everest was first climbed in 1953 by Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay. Every year, a lot of people want to climb Mt. Everest. It is very dangerous to climb Mt. Everest. The air is very (32) _____ and cold. Most people carry bottles of oxygen; they could die without it. When the oxygen bottles are empty, people throw them on the ground. (33) _____ strong winds rip their tents, people leave them behind. They do not have the energy to take the rubbish away. They only have enough energy to go down the mountain (34) _____. Rubbish is a terrible problem. Since people first began to climb Mt. Everest, they have left tons and tons of rubbish on the mountain. Several groups have climbed the mountain just to (35) _____ the rubbish. When people plan to climb the mountain, they have to plan to take away their rubbish.

31. A. on B. in C. for D. to

32. A. thin B. pleasant C. thick D. light

33. A. Unless B. Until C. When D. Before

34. A. freely B. simply C. carefully D. safely

35. A. get out B. pick up C. take off D. turn down

PART 2: Read the following passage and do the tasks below. (1.0 pt)

.........................

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

SECTION ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 điểm): Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. A

SECTION TWO: USE OF ENGLISH (5.0 điểm). Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.

PART 1: Choose the best answer (marked A, B, C or D) to finish each of the following sentences.

6. B

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. C

11. B

12. A

13. B

14. D

15. B

16. C

17. A

18. D

19. B

20. B

21. C

22. C

23. C

24. B

25. B

PART 2: Supply the correct form of the words in bold in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.

26. peaceful

27. specialities

28. construction

29. liveable

30. distract

SECTION THREE: READING (2.0 điểm).

PART 1: (1.0 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.

31. B

32. A

33. C

34. D

35. B

PART 2: Read the following passage and do the tasks below.

Task 1: (0,2 điểm)

36. T

Task 2: (0,8) Mỗi câu trả lời đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0,4 điểm.

37. Four countries ( Four)

38. Yes, it is.

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (2.0 pts).

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (1.2 pts)

Mỗi câu trả lời đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0,4 điểm.

39. Laura wondered if the Sahara Desert was hot all year round

40. The teacher whose son plays football very well taught us English last year.

41. They get on with all their neighbours

PART 2: Make any changes and additions necessary to produce meaningful sentences from set of words or phrases given in each of the following questions. (0.8 pts)

Mỗi câu trả lời đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0,4 điểm.

42. I wish I could attend some traditional festivals of minority people in Vietnam

43. If we want to balance life and study, it is important for us to manage our time effectively.

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