Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 8 Global Success

Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 môn tiếng Anh 8 Global Success được Hoatieu chia sẻ đến các em trong bài viết này là mẫu đề thi cuối kì 2 lớp 8 môn tiếng Anh Global Success có đáp án chi tiết giúp các em học sinh có thêm tài liệu ôn thi cuối kì 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 8 sách Kết nối tri thức. Sau đây là nội dung đề thi học kì 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 8 sách Kết nối tri thức, mời các em cùng tham khảo.

• Đề thi học kì 2 Giáo dục công dân 8 sách Kết nối có đáp án

1. Đề thi cuối kì 2 Tiếng Anh 8 Global Success có đáp án

SECTION A. LISTENING (2pts)

I.  Listen to an announcement about an exhibition. Complete each gap the agenda with One word or a number. (1.0pt)

Event	Where to go	When to meet
Opening ceremony	Main …………….(1)	By 8.20 am
……………………….(2)	First floor	9.15 am
Modern Time	Tech ………………….(3)	10.15 am
Animated …………………..(4)	Cinema Room	……………………(5)am.

II. Listen to the conversation. Decide if these sentences are True (T) or False (F).(1.0pt)

Statements	True (T)	False (F)
6. Teacher Robot can speak 23 languages
7. Teacher Robot can’t teach Math
8. It feels tired when it repeats words
9. It’s difficult for students to answer Teacher Robot’s questions.
10. It cann’t solve problems between students

SECTION B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2pts)

I. Phonetics: Circle the word with has a different stress pattern from that of the others.(0,4 pts)

11. A.dangerous B. humorous C. ambitious D. generous

12. A. agree B.Japanese C. Vietnamese D. guarantee

II. Choose the best word or phrase (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below.(1.6 pts)

13. Mrs Hoa was a ___________. She’s extremely keen on shopping and spends a lot of time on this expensive hobby.

A. shopers B. shopaholic C. shoper D. shop

14. . ______________ often happen in rainy season especially in the center of Vietnam.

A. Droughts B. Volcanoes C. Floods D. Earthquakes

15. By using ________, you can attend a meeting with your 3D image instead of being there in person.

A. internet B. holography C. a mobile phone D. a laptop

16. Face __________ is everywhere from social media tagging to airport security cameras.

A. agreement B. information C. realization D. recognition

17. I think language barriers will disappear _________ 20 years.

A. for B. in C. by D. at

18. This contact lenses are __________. They aren’t mine.

A. your B. yours C. my D. mine

19. He said that he ________ a new car the following day.

A. will buy B. would buy C. is going to buy D. bought

20. Student A: “We will be there in ten minutes”

Student B: “___________________!”

A. Yes, we will. B. Sorry for interrupting but I think it's difficult

C. You’re welcome. D. That's a good idea!

SECTION C. READING (2pts)

I. Read the passage, and choose the suitable words to complete the passage:

prediction

anger

deforestation

natural

decades

Natural disasters result from natural processes of the earth. However, in the last five decades, human activities have contributed to increasing the number of (21) _____________ disasters. More landslides have occurred as a result of (22) _____________. Because there are fewer trees in the forest, the soil becomes loosened and more easily flushed down. Industrialization and urbanization contribute to global warming, leading to more intense disasters of all kinds, including hurricanes and tsunamis. It is more difficult to have exact (23) _____________ of climate patterns such as El Nino and La Nina.

According to the Office of US Foreign Disaster Assistance, the total natural disasters reported each year have been steadily increasing in recent (24) _____________. In 1980, there were only about 100 hydro-meteorological disasters reported per year but that number has risen to over 300 a year since 2000. If humans do not take action, natural disasters will become more tragic and we won’t be able to cope with the (25) _____________ of Mother Nature.

II. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to answer the quesions. (1pt )

Thomas Alva Edison was born in Ohio in 1847. As a child, he received less than a year of formal schooling, but was educated at home. His parents allowed him to set up a laboratory in their basement and his mother gave him books about chemistry and electronics. Edison credits his mother as being ‘the making’ of him.

In 1878, Thomas Edison began serious research into developing a practical incandescent lamp and on October 14, 1878, Edison filed his first patent application for "Improvement In Electric Lights". In 1879 he created a successful incandescent light bulb. This was his hardest project – from 1877 to 1880, Edison and his assistants tried around 3000 experiments to perfect their light bulb design. By the end of 1880, Edison had produced a bulb that lasted 1500 hours. This discovery marked the beginning of commercially manufactured light bulbs and in 1880, Thomas Edison’s company, Edison Electric Light Company began marketing its new product.

26. When was Edison born?

A. in 1878 B. in 1847 C. in 1877 D. in 1500

27. Where was Edison’s laboratory?

A. at his school B. in a company

C. in the city D. in their basement

28. How many hours did the 1880 bulb last?

A. 3000 B. 1500 C. 1880 D. 1878

29. What does the word “its” in the last sentence refer to?

A. Thomas Edison’s company B. Thomas Edison’s patent

C. Thomas Edison’s invention D. Thomas Edison’s discovery

30. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Thomas Edison’s invention B. The early life of Thomas Edison

C. Family of Thomas Edison D. Thomas Edison’s company

SECTION D- WRITING (2.0 pts)

I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English (0,4 pts)

31. The phone with a camera is mine and the one without a camera is her.

                          A                          B                  C                                     D

32. Mai said to me that she were having an English test then.

               A                                B              C                         D

II. Reorder the words and phrases to make correct sentences. (0,8 pts)

33. Robots / do / the housework / will / in / 20 / years. /all ………………………………………………………………………………………………

34. said/ My/ teacher/ that/ he/ had/ video/ a/ conference/ every month./

………………………………………………………………………………………………

35. mother/ his / was/ While/ cooking/ he / dinner,/ home. /came

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

36. she/ as soon as/ the/ heard/ She/ cried/ news. /

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. Rewite the sentence without changing its meaning using the given words (0,8 pts)

37. Mr Nam is one of my teachers.

→Mr Nam is ………………………………………………………………………………..

38. Sam said to me, “I am very tired now because I didn’t sleep last night”

→ Sam said that…………………………………………………………………………….

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2. Đề thi tiếng Anh 8 cuối kì 2 Global Success - đề 1

PART I. LISTENING (2.0pts)

A. Listen to an advertisement for a messaging application. Circle the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1pt)

1. What is people’s top concern when it comes to messaging applications?

A. Stable connection B. Late update C. Too many competing applications

2. What can users have when they choose to use ConnectABC?

A. The best network B. Unreliable connection C. Frequent interruptions

3. What do developers commit to doing twice a month?

A. Looking for security issues

B. Gathering users’ feedback

C. Updating the application

4. How many users does ConnectABC currently have?

A. 50 thousand B. 30 thousand C. 60 thousand

5. What will people get when they sign up today?

A. A free smartphone B. An exclusive voice message C. New features

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

B. Listen and decide if the following statements are True(T) or False(F).(1pt)

T 1: Amy suggests recycling trash to reduce land pollution.

F 2: Daniel suggests cleaning up rivers to reduce air pollution.

F 3: Amy agrees with riding bikes to school because it’s snowy.

T 4: Amy and Daniel agree that they should save electricity and not waste water.

T 5: They should reuse plastic bottles so they can reduce land pollution

PART II. LANGUAGE FOCUS: (2.0 pt)

1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others

A. painted

B. promised

C. increased

D. practiced

2. Find the words that has different stress

A. disaster B. general C. property D. fabulous

* Choose the best answer

3. Bob, the teacher wants to talk to __________ about your study.

A. their B. you C. your D. it

4. ____ Jenny left the party, she said goodbye to the host.

A. Before B. After C. As soon as D. Until

5. _____2030, smartphones will become supersmart and super thin.

A. on B. by C. for D. at

6. Many people think ______ will replace human translators in the future.

A. voice messages B. translation machines

C. dictionaries D. emojis

7. Were you ________ to your friend on the phone at 9 p.m. yesterday?

A. talk B. talked C. talking D. to talk

8. Can I borrow a pencil of yours?

-> Can I borrow one of_______pencils?

A. your B. you C. yours D. mine

9. A: Would you like to go shopping with me ?

-> B:___________________________

A. The maths lesson starts in 10 minutes. B. I don’t like.

C. I want some donuts. D. I’m afraid I’m busy now.

10. Choose the word that is not correct.

Mike said that he can design a robot in the future.

A                 B        C                           D

PART III. READING (2.0 pts)

A. Read the passage and choose the best answer A,B,C or D for each numbered blanks(1pt)

A corner shop or a convenience shop is a British tradition. It is a small retail shop. We can find a corner shop at the end of a local street in many neighbourhoods in towns ………..(1) cities across the UK. The corner shop ………..(2) all kinds of household goods and simple food and drinks like snacks, groceries, coffee, soft drinks. It…….. (3) sells newspapers, magazines, and cigarettes. Convenience stores are originally from America. They are like the British corner shops. The only……… (4) is that convenience stores are often open 24 hours. Probably the most well-known convenience store is 7-Eleven. You can find a convenience store at any residential ………(5), a filling station, a railway station, or alongside a busy road.

1: A. and B. before C. as D. after

2: A. selling B. sell C. sold D. sells

3: A. generally B. finally C. aslo D. too

4: A. good B. difference C. benefit D. thing

5: A. land B. houses C. community D. area

B. Read the text carefully and choose the best answer (1 pt)

The history of the computer in the twentieth century is one of dramatic adaption and expansion. The computer had modest beginnings in areas where it was used as a specialist tool. The first electronic computer was built in the 1930s and was solely for use of undergraduate students in Iowa State University to handle mathematical computations in nuclear physics. In World War II, computers were developed in order to wage counter espionage and break codes used by the enemy. In the post-war years the scope of computers was expanded to include the military industrial complex and academia. Obviously people needed to travel around these institutions and so there was a need for early network tools. In the 1960’s an early version of the Internet, ARPPANET was used in computers were starting to change our lifestyle, the way we do business and many style things (Elliot, 1994) and by the late 1980s, networks were expanding to embrace sections of the general public. The internet was born.

1. When was the first electronic computer invented?

A. in the 1920s B. in the 1930s C. in the 1940s D. in the 1950s

2. In World War II, computers were developed in order to____________.

A. break enemy’s code B. call other soldiers C. do calculations D. study geography

3. Why was the scope of computer expanded in the post-war year?

A. to teach at academic school B. to sell to other countries

C. to spread knowledge D. to include the military industrial complex

4. When were networks expanded to serve general public?

A. by the late 1980s B. by the late 1970s C. by the late 1990s C. by the late 1960s

5. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A.The first electronic computer was built in the 1930s

B.Computers were developed in order to wage counter espionage and break codes used by the enemy

C. ARPPANET was used in computers were starting to change our work

D.Networks were expanding to embrace sections of the general public.

PART IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)

A. Rewrite a sentence without changing meaning: (1pt)

1. I read my favourite book. Then I went to bed.

-> After___________________________________________________________________

2. “ They are developing technology to monitor students better,” my dad said .

-> My dad said that________________________________________________________

B. Write about your shopping habits. (100-150 words) (1.0 pt)

You can base on some suggestions below:

- Do you shop online or offline?

- How often do you do the shopping?

- What do you often shop for?

- Is your shopping habit good or bad?

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3. Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 8 Global Success - đề 2

ENGLISH SECOND TERM TEST 1

I. LISTENING

Listen to a talk about electricity and fill in the gaps. Track 9

Electricity (1) ________ the most important inventions ever. It is the thing that powers the Earth. If (2) ________ no electricity, we’d be back in the dark ages. Few people stop and (3) ________ just how amazing electricity is. With the flick of a switch, you can (4) ________ almost anything. Think about (5) ________ happen if there was no electricity. We’d have no TV, no computers, no traffic signals. It would be like (6) ________ to living in caves. There are a few (7) ________ about electricity, of course. Number one, it’s dangerous. Thousands (8) ________ die each year from electrocuting themselves or in electrical fires. And number two, it (9) ________ for the environment. Most electricity comes from (10) ________ and that creates greenhouse gasses.

VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

11. A. eruption B. communicate C. multimedia D. earplug

12. A. increase B. speaker C. measure D. untreated

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

13. A. geography B. temporary C. apology D. astrology

14. A. adoptee B. employee C. refugee D. committee

15. A. chemical B. informal C. national D. medical

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

16. Hundreds of people were made ________ after the flood. They had nowhere to go.

A. mindless B. helpless C. careless D. homeless

17. Both French and English are ________ languages in Canada.

A. officiate B. officially C. office D. official

18. The air people breathe gets polluted ________ fumes from factories.

A. due to B. since C. therefore D. because

19. The bald eagle, an American symbol, ________ in any other places besides North America.

A. doesn’t live B. won’t live C. is not living D. hasn’t lived

20. This time tomorrow I ________ with my cousin in Sydney on Skype.

A. will be chatting

B. chat

C. am chatting

D. will chat

21. If people really cared about the environment, there ________ less pollution.

A. will be B. would have C. will have D. would be

22. “Would you mind ________ me on Instagram, Lindsey?” - “Sure, why not?”

A. being followed

B. follow

C. to follow

D. following

23. All people ________ down into the cellar for protection by the time the tornado swept through the town yesterday.

A. were going B. have gone C. had gone D. went

24. All the aquatic animals will die if people ________ dumping sewage into the lake.

A. won’t stop B. don’t stop C. wouldn’t stop D. didn’t stop

25. Coming to Scotland, visitors can drive through vast green ________

A. lochs B. stations C. pastures D. castles

26. Using music, codes or signs to communicate is called ________ communication.

A. non-verbal B. public C. non-public D. verbal

27. Five houses in a village in the eastern region ________ by the mudslide.

A. buried B. were buried C. had buried D. was buried

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting in each of the following questions.

28. Peter refused workingonline becausehe prefers meeting face-to-face.

A. because B. prefers C. face-to-face D. working

29. Hundreds ofhouses destroyedafter a tornado hit the small town of Texas.

A. Hundreds of B. of C. destroyed D. hit

30. The train to San Francisco will leaveat 9:45 a.m. soyou’d better hurry.

A. will leave B. The C. so D. 'd better

C. READING

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every year, the average temperature of the Earth’s surface gets a little bit warmer. This gradual trend is called global warming. Warmer weather may sound nice, but global warming is something to be very concerned about.

Scientists are worried that continued warmer temperatures could damage the environment in many devastating ways. Rising temperatures might cause plants and animals to become extinct. They could melt enough polar ice to cause the levels of the sea to rise. Weather patterns could also change. There might be more droughts or serious storms with flooding. In some areas, human diseases could spread.

What is causing global warming? Humans are mostly to blame. Pollution from factories and cars adds toxic gases to the air. These gases rise to the Earth’s atmosphere. As the sun’s rays warm the Earth, the gases work much like the glass in a greenhouse. They help trap the heat in the atmosphere and make the Earth grow warmer. That is why they are nicknamed “greenhouse gases.”

It is our responsibility to take care of our planet. Global warming is a serious problem with serious consequences. If we want future generations to enjoy their time on Earth, we must act now!

31. In the sentence: Warmer weather may sound nice, but global warming is something to be very concerned about. ” (in paragraph 1), the author suggests that people may not _________.

A. care about warmer weather

B. understand how serious colder weather is

C. take global warming seriously

D. think warmer weather sounds nice

32. From the description of greenhouse gases, it can be concluded that a greenhouse is ________

A. a glass structure

B. the Earth

C. a coloured home

D. a type of gas

33. Which of the following is not a possible effect of global warming?

A. weather patterns changing

B. more polar ice

C. human diseases spreading

D. plants and animals becoming extinct

34. This passage is mostly about ________

A. the causes and effects of global warming

B. the reasons why global warming is not a serious problem

C. the solutions to global warming

D. the different types of global warming

35. The statement “humans are mostly to blame" in paragraph 3 suggests that ________

A. there are many factors that cause global warming

B. humans have not been blamed for global warming

C. humans are mostly responsible for global warming

D. humans have been blamed for global warming

Read the following passage about homelessness and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Australia is the 6th biggest country in the world. Only Russia, China, Canada, USA and Brazil are (36) ________ It is the world’s largest island.

(37) ________ the country is so big, it only has about 23 million inhabitants. 88% of all Australians live in the big cities or smaller towns, which makes big areas of the country empty.

Australia lies in the southern hemisphere, which means that the more south you go, the cooler it gets. In the north parts of the country, it is always hot. The rest of the country has really hot summers and mild winters. Snow only falls in the Australian Alps and in Tasmania. When we have winter in Europe and Asia, the Australians have summer. So they celebrate Christmas in the middle of the summer!

Australia is famous (38) ________ its wildlife. The most famous animal is probably the kangaroo. The kangaroo, or ‘roo’ for short, has (39) ________ Australia’s national symbol. The word “kangaroo” was the first Aboriginal word in the English language. There are several spices of kangaroos. The red kangaroos are the biggest ones and they are (40) ________ in the middle of the country.

36. A. biggest B. more big C. bigger D. big

37. A. Although B. Despite C. However D. Because

38. A. in B. of C. for D. with

39. A. became B. been becoming C. become D. becoming

40. A. finding B. found C. founded D. find

D. WRITING

Complete the second sentence using the cue given so that its meaning is similar to the first one.

41. “The people from Venus may travel in flying cars,” Jack answered me. (reported speech)

Jack thought

42. Mai is one of her friends.

Mai is

43. “Will those people become good friends with humans?” Kathy asked her teacher. (reported speech)

Kathy asked her teacher

44. All flights had to be cancelled as a result of the pilots’ sudden strike. (so)

The pilots suddenly went on strike,

45. My teacher said: “People will soon communicate using telepathy.” (reported speech)

My teacher said

Choose the sentence that best combines the root sentence in such a way that their meaning remains unchanged.

46. I don’t have enough money, so I don’t buy seafood.

A. If I have enough money, I will buy seafood.

B. If I had enough money, I would buy seafood.

C. If I didn’t have enough money, I didn’t buy seafood.

D. If I didn’t have enough money, I would buy seafood.

47. Study hard, or you won’t pass the exam.

A. If you study hard, you won’t pass the exam.

B. If you study hard, you will pass the exam.

C. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam.

D. Both B and C are correct.

48. This is the first time she has been to the United Kingdom.

A. She has been to the United Kingdom for some times before.

B. She has never been to the United Kingdom before.

C. She has never been to the United Kingdom.

D. She hasn’t been to the United Kingdom.

49. I don’t live with my mother, so that I can’t take care of her.

A. I can’t take care of my mother because of I don’t live with her.

B. Since I don’t live with my mother, I can’t take care of her.

C. Because not living with my mother so I can’t take care of her.

D. Because not live with my mother, I can’t take care of her

50. Many people had been homeless before they were rescued by the volunteers.

A. After they were rescued by the volunteers, many people had been homeless.

B. After they had been rescued by the volunteers, many people were homeless.

C. After they had been rescued by the volunteers, many people weren’t homeless.

D. After they were rescued by the volunteers, many people hadn’t been homeless.

......................

Đáp án

ENGLISH SECOND TERM TEST 1

A. LISTENING

Track 9

Electricity is one of the most important inventions ever. It is the thing that powers the Earth. If there was no electricity, we’d be back in the dark ages. Few people stop and think just how amazing electricity is. With the flick of a switch, you can power almost anything. Think about what would happen if there was no electricity. We’d have no TV, no computers, no traffic signals. It would be like going back to living in caves. There are a few negative points about electricity, of course. Number one, it’s dangerous. Thousands of people die each year from electrocuting themselves or in electrical fires. And number two, it isn’t good for the environment. Most electricity comes from burning coal and that creates greenhouse gasses.

1. one of 2. there was 3. think 4. power 5. what would

6. going back 7. negative points 8. of people 9. isn’t good 10. burning coal

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

11. B 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B

16. D 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. A

21. D 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. C

26. A 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A

C. READING

31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C

36. C 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. B

D. WRITING

41. Jack thought the people from Venus might travel in flying cars.

42. Mai is a friend of hers.

43. Kathy asked her teacher if those people would become good friends with humans.

44. The pilots suddenly went on strike, so all flights had to be cancelled.

45. My teacher said people would soon communicate using telepathy.

46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. C

4. Ma trận đề thi cuối kì 2 Anh 8 Global Success

PARTS	No. of Ques	Mark	Task types	Re		Com		Low App		High App
				TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
LISTENING (2,0)	5	1.0	Listen and complete				0,2		0,8
	5	1.0	Listen and tick T/F.	0,8		0,2
LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0)	2	0,4	- Choose the word which has different stressed sylable form the others	0,4
	4	0,8	Vocabulary: MCQs: Circle the best option	0,4		0,4
	4	0,8	Grammar: MCQs: Circle the best option	0,4		0,4
READING (2,0)	5	1,0	Read the text and choose the suitable words	0,4		0,6
	5	1,0	Read the text and circle the best answer:	0,6		0,4
WRITING (2,0)	2	0,4	(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English	0,4
	4	0,8	(Reordering) Reorder the words or phrases given to make complete sentences						0,8
	2	0,8	(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged								0,8
TOTAL(8,0)	38	8.0		3,4		2,2		1,6		0,8
SPEAKING (2,0)	2	0,4	Introduction		0,4
	5	1,0	Topic speaking		0,2		0,8
	3	0,6	Questions and Answers						0,4		0,2
Grand Total (10,0)	48	10,0		4,0		3,0		2,0		1,0

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