Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World năm 2025 - 2026

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World năm 2025 - 2026 gồm 3 đề thi, có đáp án, hướng dẫn giải chi tiết và file nghe, trình bày khoa học, giúp thầy cô tham khảo để xây dựng đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 lớp 6.

Với 3 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World giúp thầy cô có thêm nhiều kinh nghiệm để xây dựng đề thi giữa học kì 1 năm 2025 - 2026 cho học sinh của mình. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi môn Tiếng Anh 6 Global Success. Mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây.

1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World (Có file nghe)

1.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

UBND QUẬN _________ PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I Năm học 2025 - 2026 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

I. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

1. A. laundry B. hometown C. physics D. event

2. A. fantasy B. adventure C. exciting D. apartment

II. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

3. The plates are dirty. I need to ________.

A. do the shopping
B. do the dishes
C. make the dishes
D. do the laundry

4. ________ stories are about magic, kings and queens.

A. Fantasy
B. Mystery
C. Comic
D. Adventure

5. Why don’t you sign ________ a book club?

A. in
B. out
C. up for
D. for

.....

III. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)

WHAT TO DO IN AMSTERDAM

Amsterdam, the capital city of the Netherlands, is a great place to spend time. It is in the west of the Netherlands. It’s easy to travel to this city because it has a big railway station and an airport – and it isn’t difficult to find a hotel. There’s a lot to see and do here. There are shops for people who enjoy shopping and restaurants with typical Dutch food, like stamppot or poffertjes. Or you can go to one of the museums, such as Van Gogh Museum. The best way to travel around Amsterdam is on a bike. There are 747,000 people here and over 600,000 bikes. After a busy day, a lot of visitors enjoy a cup of coffee at one of Amsterdam’s many koffiehuizen (coffee houses).

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

	True or False
13. There aren’t any railway stations in Amsterdam. 14. It’s difficult for tourists to find a hotel in Amsterdam. 15. Stamppot and poffertjes is typical food in Amsterdam. 16. Cycling is the best way to travel around Amsterdam.

* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (0.5 points)

17. Amsterdam is in the _______ of the Netherlands.

A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west

18. The word ‘koffiehuizen’ in paragraph 2 means _______.

A. a cup of coffee
B. a place where people drink coffee
C. the name of a boat tour
D. the name of a museum

IV. Cloze test

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

I live in Tallinn (19) __________ the north-west of Estonia. I’m 15 and I live with my parents and brother in a small apartment. On weekdays, I get up at 7 o’ clock in the morning. I walk to school – it’s very near my home and we don’t have a car. School (20) __________ at 8a.m. and ends at 2p.m. I study math, biology, history, art, music, English and German – and Estonian, of course. My favorite (21) __________ are English and history. After school, I go home (22) __________ lunch. I do my homework in the evening and I go to bed at 11p.m. In my free time, I go to the movies, visit friends and (23) __________ rollerblading. Our summer holiday is in July and August and we go to the Baltic Sea. Everyone (24) __________ swimming.

19. A. on B. in C. inside D. at

20. A. start B. begin C. starts D. has

21. A. clubs B. thing C. subject D. subjects

22. A. on B. for C. during D. with

23. A. go B. play C. have D. make

24. A. like B. don’t like C. loves D. plays

V. Verb forms and verb tenses

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

25. My house _________ (not have) a garage.

26. My dad usually _________ (do) the shopping at the weekend.

27. I really like _________ (use) computers.

28. I like _________ (chat) with my friends and my cousins.

VI. Rearrange the groups of words in the correct order to make complete sentences. (0.6 points)

29. is / Mary / red T-shirt / wearing / a / black shorts / and /.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

30. doing / I / activities / basketball / love / like / outdoor /.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VII. Make questions for the underlined part. (1.2 points)

31. My sister Lucy cleans the kitchen.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

32. John is wearing a shirt and jeans.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

33. The city is famous for beautiful houses and museums.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VIII. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.2 points)

34. There are three bedrooms in my house.

→ My house ……………………………………………………..…………………………………

35. I like literature and geography.

→ Literature and geography ….……………………………………..……………………………...

36. Mrs. Smith has a daughter, Anna.

→ Mrs. Smith is ………………………..……………………………………..………………………

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Pronunciation:

Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation. (0.25 points)

1. A. kitchen B. living C. idea D. dinner

Cloze test:

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My name’s James and I live in a small town in the east of Australia. There are four people in my family – my parents, my sister and me. There’s a garden in front of our house and behind the house, (19) __________ a garage for my father’s car and our bikes. On weekends, my sister and I are always (20) __________ on our bikes. Upstairs there’s my bedroom, my sister’s bedroom and a bathroom. Downstairs there’s my (21) __________ bedroom, a living room and a kitchen. Soccer is my favorite sport. My sister Susan is very good (22) __________ science. Her favorite subject is physics. She’s quiet (23) __________ she isn’t shy. She can be very funny. She’s also crazy about music and she’s in a singing club. I’m in a photography club. I love (24) __________ photos of my beautiful town.

19. A. is B. there’s C. it’s D. it

20. A. outdoor B. indoor C. go D. outside

21. A. parents B. parents’ C. parents’s D. parents a

22. A. at B. for C. in D. with

23. A. and B. because C. but D. also

24. A. make B. doing C. having D. taking

Verb forms and verb tenses:

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.25 point)

1. My father sometimes _________ (teach) me to play chess.

Jumbled words:

Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.3 points)

1. My/ short/ has/ a/ hair/ big/ English/ brown/ nose/ and/ teacher/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Make questions:

Make questions for the underlined part. (0.4 point)

1. My brother cleans the living room and takes out the garbage .

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Listening:

Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False. (1 point)

1. The girl wears a uniform to school.

2. She plays basketball twice a week.

3. Her favorite subject is French.

4. Her school begins at 7 o’ clock.

1.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

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1.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KT GIỮA HỌC KỲ I – TIẾNG ANH 6 SMART WORLD

		CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG		VẬN DỤNG CAO
		Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Pronunciation (0.5pts)	Stress	Q1, 2								2
Writing (Use of English) (2pts)	Vocabulary Preposition Grammar	Q5, 8		Q3, 4		Q6, 7				6
	Signs			Q11, 12						2
Speaking (0.5pts)				Q9, 10						2
Reading (3pts)	Reading comprehension	Q17	Q13, 14			Q15, 16		Q18		6
	Guided cloze	Q19, 21		Q20, 24		Q22		Q23		6
Writing (4pts)	Verb form/ verb tense (1pt)		Q25		Q26		Q27		Q28	4
	Rearrange the words (0.6pt)		Q29				Q30			2
	Make questions (1.2pts)		Q31, 32				Q33			3
	Sentence transformation (1.2pts)				Q34, 35				Q36	3
Tổng (10pts)		7	6	8	3	5	3	2	2
		13 câu 36%		11 câu 31%		8 câu 22%		4 câu 11%		36 câu

Trắc nghiệm: 22 câu (61%) Tự luận: 14 câu (39%)

Sentence transformation: 0.4đ/ câu

Rearrange sentences: 0.3đ/ câu

Others: 0.25đ/ câu

14 EXTRA SENTENCES:

		CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG		VẬN DỤNG CAO
		Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Listening	True/ False		Q1, 3		Q4		Q2			4
Pronunciation				Q1						1
Reading	Cloze test			Q2,4		Q5,6,7		Q3		6
Writing	Verb form/ verb tense								Q8	3
	Rearrange the sentences								Q9
	Make question								Q10

1.4. File nghe đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World - Đề 2

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3. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World - Đề 3

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