Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 9 2023

Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 9 2023 là tổng hợp các đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 9 chính thức có đáp án chi tiết sẽ giúp các em học sinh bổ trợ kiến thức trong các kì thi quan trọng. Tuyển tập đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp tỉnh dưới đây bao gồm đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 của 8 môn Toán, Lý, Hóa, Sinh, Văn, Sử, Địa, Anh. Mời các em cùng tham khảo.

• Viết đoạn văn 200 chữ trình bày quan niệm về hạnh phúc

1. Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp tỉnh có đáp án

Lưu ý:

- Thí sinh không được ghi bất kỳ thông tin gì vào phần này.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này. (Hãy đọc kỹ các phần hướng dẫn làm bài)

I. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Part 1. There are five questions in this part. For each question there are three pictures and a short recording. Choose the correct picture and put a tick (ü) in the box below it. You will hear each recording twice. (1.0 point)

1. How will the man travel to the city centre?

2. What did the girl dislike at the hostel she stayed in?

3. What is the man going to order for lunch?

4. What sport would the woman like to try?

5. Which book is the man reading?

Part 2. You will hear people talking in five different situations. For each question, choose the correct answer. (1.0 point)

1. You will hear two friends talking about their exams. How does John feel about the maths exam?

A. John is very disappointed about the maths exam.

B. John didn’t expect the maths exam to be hard.

C. John thinks he has done better than expected.

2. You will hear two friends discussing weekend activities. Joe and Linda agree to

A. do only what Linda wants.

B. spend the following weekend outdoors.

C. avoid being in crowded places.

3. You will hear two people talking about their holiday. How is Anna feeling about the flight?

A. She’s feeling very relaxed about it.

B. She’s really excited about it.

C. She isn’t looking forward to it.

4. You will hear two friends talking about their homes. How does Lucy feel about having her own room?

A. She wishes her room was bigger.

B. She enjoys having more space.

C. She misses sharing with her sister.

5. You will hear two friends talking about horse riding. How does Hannah react to Simon’s news?

A. She’s surprised.

B. She’s worried.

C. She’s excited.

Part 3. You will hear a radio interview with a plastic surgeon. Listen and complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (2.0 points)

Dr Nigel Bryan

Dr Bryan has over (1) _____________________________ experience.

He became interested when he was in residency training at (2) _____________________________.

Many of the fundamental surgical techniques have (3) _____________________________

The general population of women and men considering comestic procedures is

(4) _____________________________

He is a specialist in (5) _____________________________

On his website he says that comestic surgery can help a person with

(6) _____________________________

Serious medical complications rarely if even occur (7) _____________________________

In general, most patients are thrilled, happy and require (8) _____________________________

His son’s name is (9) _____________________________

Dr Bryan says it is a thrill and privilege to work with his (10) _____________________________

II. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Write your answer (A,B,C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 point)

1. A. work                  B. form                   C. stork                      D. force

2. A. complete            B. command          C. comment               D. commend

3. A. luggage              B. fragile                C. gesture                  D. bargain

4. A. theme                 B. smooth              C. thatch                    D. path

5. A.compile                B.milestone           C. missile                   D. textile

Your answers:

Part 2. Choose the word whose main stress is different from the rest in each group. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 point)

1. A. economic              B. equivalent           C. disappointed         D. scientific

2. A. completion            B. argument            C. disposal                D. linguistics

3. A. imagine                 B. develop               C. introduce              D. astonish

4. A. application            B. certificate            C. biology                  D. security

5. A. complimentary      B. geographical       C. international          D. communicative

Your answers:

III. USE OF ENGLISH (4.0 points)

Part 1. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete the following sentences. Write your

answer (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (2.0 points)

1. I accidentally ______ Nick when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.

A. kept an eye on

B. caught sight of

C. lost touch with

D. paid attention to

2. It is essential that Alice ______ Tom of the meeting tomorrow.

A. must remind

B. remind

C. will remind

D. reminds

3. Had she worked harder last summer, she ______.

A. wouldn't have been sacked

B. wouldn't have sacked

C. wouldn't sack

D. wouldn't be sacked

4. We walk in the streets where the noise of traffic is almost ______.

A. deafened

B. deafness

C. deafening

D. deaf

5. ______, he couldn't solve that mathematical puzzle.

A. As intelligent as was he

B. Intelligent as he was

C. So intelligent was he

D. Although he is intelligent

6. Many parents don’t let their children make a decision ______ their future career.

A. on

B. in

C. out

D. about

7. Mr. Henry was given a medal in ______ of his service to his country.

A. knowledge

B. response

C. gratitude

D. recognition

8. Look at the situation I am in! If only I ______ your advice.

A. had followed

B. follow

C. followed

D. would follow

9. On Sundays, many people take their cars to service stations ______.

A. to refill the oil

B. to get the oil refill

C. to get the oil refilled

D. to make the oil refilled

10. I ______ to be enthusiatic, but in fact I didn’t like the idea at all.

A. objected

B. intended

C. arranged

D. pretended

11. The government need to take effective ______ to preserve historical sites in the area.

A. methods

B. measures

C. activities

D. campaigns

12. ______ from the disease, she’s more aware of the importance of taking regular exercise.

A. Having recovered

B. Recover

C. To recover

D. Being recovered

13. The temperatures ______ take place vary widely for different materials.

A. at which they melt and freeze

B. which melting and freezing

C. which they melt and freeze

D. at which melting and freezing

14. She is very absent-minded. She ______ her cellphone three times.

A. loses

B. lost

C. has lost

D. had lost

15. I'm sure you'll have no difficulty ______ the exam.

A. passed

B. passing

C. to pass

D. pass

16. I don't know what to say to break the _____ with someone I've just met at the party.

A. air

B. ice

C. leg

D. rule

17. Mr.Brown refused to answer the questions on the ______ that the matter was confidential.

A. reasons

B. excuses

C. grounds

D. foundation

18. It was so foggy that the climbers couldn’t ______ the nearest shelter.

A. make out

B. break out

C. take out

D. run out

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.

19. A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.

A. demolishing B. exploding C. developing D. running

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.

20. She was brought up in a well-off family, so she can't understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor

Your answers:

Part 2. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 point)

Part 3. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (ü) in the space next to the number of the line. If a line has a word which should not be there, put that word in the space next to the number of the line. There are two examples at the beginning (0) and (00). (1.0 point)

IV. READING (4.0 points)

Part 1. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each blank. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 point)

It’s a record!

In 1955, the first ever edition of The Guinness Book of Records was published. Enthralled readers learned about the world’s (1) ……… ocean (the Pacific - approximately 4,300 metres to the bottom), or the biggest birds on (2) ……… (ostriches). The book, which later became known as Guinness World Records, (3) ……… on to become a huge success. In modem editions, more space is devoted to human (4) ………, some of which seem quite bizarre! For example, in 2008, people in the Korean seaside town of Busan set a record for opening the greatest number of parasols on a sandy (5) ………!

All Guinness records have to be provable. You might think the top of a (6) ………mountain gives the most spectacular (7) ……… in the world, but this is opinion, not fact, and would not be permitted as a record. The Guinness team take their roles as judges very (8) ………. Every year, employees make long (9) ……… around the world to observe and assess record-breaking attempts so that only accurate information is recorded - from the (10) ………of the longest ride on a lawn mower (260 days), to the width of the biggest pizza (over 37 metres in diameter!). This remarkable archive of trivia has even set a record of its own - as the world’s biggest-selling copyright series!

(Extracted from Target First Certificate of English)

1. A. deepest B. tallest C. lowest D. farthest

2. A. planet B. globe C. earth D. world

3. A. moved B. carried C. kept D. went

4. A. results B. awards C. merits D. achievements

5. A. beach B. shore C. bay D. coast

6. A. peculiar B. different C. particular D. distinct

7. A. scenery B. sight C. landscape D. view

8. A. importantly B. strongly C. seriously D. heavily

9. A. travels B. ways C. routes D. journeys

10. A. period B. duration C. age D. progression

Part 2. Read the passage below and think of ONE word which best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 point)

LETTERS FROM HOME

I lived in a very mysterious house at (0) ….one…. stage when I was a student. It was an old house that had (1) ………….. empty for a couple of months before my college friends and I moved in. The strange thing (2) ………….. that the people who had lived there before us had left a lot of their belongings behind. There was some old furniture that they must (3) ………….. decided they didn't want, some old books and even a (4) ………….. tins of food in the kitchen. But the strangest thing was a wooden box that I found hidden under the bed in (5) ………….. of the rooms. It was full of old letters, all of

(6) ………….. had been written by the same woman to her son. He had apparently been living in New York when he received them, but he had obviously kept them for several years and (7) ………….. them back to London with (8) ………….. to this house. The letters were all in neat bundles according to the date they had been posted. They told a fascinating story and by the time it got dark, I had a really clear picture in my mind of the woman (9) ………….. had written them. What I couldn't understand was how her son could have kept them for (10) ………….. many years and then just abandoned them like that.

(Extracted from Longman Gold Plus)

Part 3. Read the text and questions below. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 point)

Cross-country skiing in Sweden by Jenna Walton, aged 15

Last year, Mum and I wanted to try a winter sport called cross-country skiing - travelling on skis across the countryside. And pictures of one area in Sweden, with people skiing along through forests on wonderful white snow, persuaded US that destination was a good choice. We hadn't done much skiing, though, so weren't sure how difficult cross-country skiing was, compared with skiing fast down steep mountains. But we signed up to join a group of people, of all ages, plus a guide.

We'd read about the place we went to before we left, so we knew it was close to where Sweden ends and Norway starts. And our family knew we couldn't text home, as there was no internet connection - and actually, it was relaxing to be far from anywhere, or anyone. What we hadn't realised was that from there, we'd be able to see amazing coloured lights in the sky, which appeared at certain times of year, called the Northern Lights - what a sight!

On our first day there, I hated getting up in the dark, but it meant I saw the sun come up over the forest, so I was glad I did. And sunshine was forecast for the week, I was delighted to hear! But the real problem was my 15kg rucksack, full of food and clothes - I had no idea it would weigh that much. Anyway, we skied for hours across mainly flat snow. Having special light skis was supposed to help US climb the few hills there were - although I still couldn't do it!

Finally we stopped for the night. It wasn't until we'd reached our hut that our guide mentioned we'd just crossed a frozen lake to get there - but nothing surprised US by that point! Anyway, he gave US all jobs to do - cutting fire wood and cooking food - and soon we were having dinner, made from whatever food we'd brought - a strange mix, but it tasted delicious. And everywhere was so peaceful outside that none of US stayed awake long.

Mum and I want to try another winter sports trip, maybe snowboarding. But we'll probably end up just as exhausted as we were after this trip!

(Extracted from Cambridge Preliminary Trainer for school)

1 Jenna and her mum decided to go cross-country skiing in Sweden because

A. they wanted a change from mountain skiing holidays.

B. they’d heard the sport would be easier than skiing down hills.

C. they’d met a group of people who wanted to go, too.

D. they found a place there that they were keen to visit.

2 After their arrival, what did they discover about where they were staying?

A. It wasn’t far from the border with another country.

B. They could get great views of a spectacular natural event.

C. It was at a point where they couldn’t use technology.

D. They weren’t near local people or their homes.

3 How did Jenna feel about the long trips through the snow on skis?

A. surprised she had to carry such a heavy bag

B. pleased about the weight of the skis she was given

C. glad that going uphill wasn’t as hard as she’d thought

D. worried the good weather they were having wouldn’t last

4 Regarding their accommodation, Jenna says everyone

A. had difficulties getting to sleep there.

B. was unhappy at the quality of the food.

C. had to help out with all the housework.

D. was shocked to hear details of their journey there.

5 What would Jenna text to a friend about her trip?

Part 4: Five sentences have been removed from the passage. Choose from sentences A – F the one which fits each gap (1– 5). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (1.0 point)

Baking and Me

I’ve always been keen on cooking and you’d often find me in the kitchen preparing the evening meal. 1 It started because of my young children, who were always ready to bake and loved the chance to make cakes at the weekend. I never realised at the time how important it would become in my life. What started as a way of entertaining the kids became a passion for me and one that I love to pass on to others. 2

To begin with there’s the preparation. Unlike normal cooking, baking requires a great deal of care. 3 Cooking a spaghetti or a curry does not require the same degree of attention. I find this interesting as being careful like this is not something that I have ever been strong at. Baking gives me the opportunity to challenge myself to get things right.

Then there’s baking itself. Whether it’s a loaf of bread or some of my favourite cakes, for around 30 minutes my attention is on the oven. I love going back into the kitchen every so often to check to see if the cake or loaf is rising as it should do, and my eyes are always on the clock to make sure I don’t leave it in too long. 4 This is why people selling a house or flat are often advised to have a loaf baking in the oven when buyers arrive!

And finally, there’s the chance to eat what you’ve made. 5 But cutting a slice and discovering it’s just right inside as well is always extremely pleasing. After testing to see if it’s OK, I love calling the family out to the kitchen to invite them all to try a piece. So yes, it’s a hobby I think will stay with me for life, despite the fact that it might mean I put on weight!

(Extracted from Cambridge Preliminary Practice Tests)

A. The smell of freshly baked bread makes a house feel like home.

B. On one occasion, my baking was not successful.

C. So, what is it that makes baking such an enjoyable experience?

D. The cake or loaf might look perfectly cooked from outside.

E. But my love of baking only began a few years ago.

F. Ingredients need to be measured out exactly.

V. WRITING (5.0 points)

Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. (1.0 point)

0. The last time I watched it was two weeks ago. (HAVE)

@ I have not watched it for two weeks.

1. I’ve already planned my next holiday. (ARRANGEMENTS)

@ I've already ................................................................................................ my next holiday.

2. Luke knocked over the old lady’s bicycle by accident. (MEAN)

@ Luke ........................................................................................... over the old lady’s bicycle.

3. He described the hotel to us in detail. (DETAILED)

@ He ........................................................................................... of the hotel.

4. Mai caught a bad cold yesterday. (DOWN)

@ Mai ........................................................................................... a cold yesterday.

5. They listened eagerly and attentively to the President’s speech. (EARS)

@ They........................................................................................... to the President’s speech.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (2.0 points)

1. I gave Ted the message, but he already knew about it.

@ I needn't

2. He is a fascinating lecturer because he knows a lot about his subject.

@ His wide

3. Immediately after his arrival home, a water-heater exploded.

@ Hardly

4. I really think she should stop ignoring me in meetings.

@ It's about

5. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.

@ With

6. The company presents a gold watch to each of its retiring employees.

@ Each

7. “Noone will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.

@ She flatly

8. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.

@ It came

9. We can start at either 2 p.m. or 3 p.m.

@ It makes

10. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.

@ Failure

Part 3. (2.0 points)

Some researches on how people live today state that “Life is much better today than in the past.” Write a composition (about 200 words) to express your opinion.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM

I. LISTENING. (4.0 points) (20 x 0.2pt = 4.0 pts)

Part 1. (1.0 point) (5 x 0.2pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 2. (1.0 point) (5 x 0.2pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 3. (2.0 points) (10 x 0.2pt = 2.0 pts)

1. 30 year(s) of
2. UCLA
3. not really changed
4. closer to 35
5. facial plastic surgery
6. poor self-esteem
7. in competent hand(s)
8. minimal care
9. Nigel Bryan Jr.
10. own son

II. PHONETICS (1.0 point) (10 x 0.1pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 1. (5 x 0.1pt = 0.5 pt)

Part 2. (5 x 0.1pt = 0.5 pt)

III. USE OF ENGLISH (4.0points)

Part 1. (2.0 points) (20 x 0.1 pt = 2.0 pts)

Part 2. (1.0 point) (10 x 0.1pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 3. (1.0 point) (10 x 0.1pt = 1.0 pt)

IV. READING (4.0points)

Part 1. (1.0 point) ( 10 x 0.1pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 2. (1.0 point) ( 10 x 0.1pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 3. (1.0 point) ( 5 x 0.2pt = 1.0 pt)

Part 4. (1.0 point) ( 5 x 0.2pt = 1.0 pt)

V. WRITING (5.0 points)

Part 1. (1.0 point) (5 x 0.2pt = 1.0 pt)

1. made (the / my) arrangements for
2. didn’t mean to knock
3. gave us a detailed description
4. came down with
5. were all ears to listen

Part 2. (2.0 points) (10 x 0.2 pt = 2.0 pts)

1. have given Ted the message (because he already knew about it).

2. knowledge of his subject makes him a fascinating lecturer.

knowledge of his subject means (that) he is a fascinating lecturer.

3. had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.

4. time she stopped ignoring me in meetings.

time she stopped giving me the cold shoulder in meetings.

5. a view to passing the exam, they tried hard.

the aim of passing the exam, they tried hard.

6. of the company’s retiring employees is presented with a gold watch.

7. refused to sleep in that haunted house.

8. as no surprise to me (that) Harry had failed his driving test.

9. no difference whether we (will) start at 2 p.m. or 3 p.m.

10. to pay on time will cancel your booking.

Part 3. (2.0 points)

The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (35% of total mark: 0.7pt)

a) Providing all main ideas and details as required

b) Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively

2. Organization & Presentation:(25% of total mark: 0.5pt)

a) Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity

b) The essay is well-structured

3. Language:(30% of total mark: 0.6pt)

a) Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower secondary school students.

b) Good use and control of grammatical structures

4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling (10% of total mark: 0.2pt)

a) Intelligible handwriting

b) Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

SPEAKING(2.0 points)Mark basing on students’ recordings.

2. Đề thi học sinh giỏi Ngữ văn lớp 9 cấp tỉnh

Họ và tên thí sinh: Số báo danh: …………..

Câu 1. Nghị luận xã hội (8,0 điểm)

Nếu tất cả đường đời đều trơn láng

Chắc gì ta đã nhận ra ta

Ai trong đời cũng có thể tiến xa

Nếu có khả năng tự mình đứng dậy

Hạnh phúc cũng như bầu trời này vậy

Đâu chỉ dành cho một riêng ai.

(Trích Tự sự, Lưu Quang Vũ)

Hãy viết một bài văn nghị luận trình bày suy nghĩ của anh/chị về vấn đề được gợi ra từ đoạn thơ trên.

Câu 2. Nghị luận văn học (12,0 điểm)

Bàn về quá trình sáng tạo của người nghệ sĩ, nhà thơ Mai Văn Phấn cho rằng:

Sáng tác là tạo ra một thế giới riêng biệt, một cõi thơ mang đậm dấu ấn tâm hồn mình.

Bằng hiểu biết về một số tác phẩm trong chương trình Ngữ văn THCS, anh/chị hãy làm sáng tỏ ý kiến trên.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM

3. Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Sử lớp 9 cấp tỉnh

Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………..Số báo danh:………………

Câu 1.(4.0 điểm)

Trình bày âm mưu, thủ đoạn và quá trình thực dân Pháp đánh chiếm Bắc Kì ở Việt Nam lần thứ nhất (1873). Chiến thắng Cầu Giấy (21 - 12 - 1873) của nhân dân ta có ảnh hưởng tới cục diện cuộc chiến tranh như thế nào?

Câu 2.(3.0 điểm)

Vào những năm đầu của thế kỉ XX, các nhà yêu nước ở Việt Nam đã tiến hành cuộc vận động giải phóng dân tộc theo xu hướng mới nào? Tại sao các nhà yêu nước Việt Nam chọn đi theo xu hướng đó?

Câu 3.(4.0 điểm)

Tại sao thực dân Pháp đẩy mạnh chương trình khai thác thuộc địa ở Việt Nam và Đông Dương ngay sau khi Chiến tranh thế giới thứ nhất (1914 - 1918) kết thúc? Tác động của chính sách khai thác thuộc địa đó đối với kinh tế Việt Nam đầu thế kỉ XX như thế nào?

Câu 4.(3.0 điểm)

Năm 1917, ở nước Nga diễn ra hai cuộc Cách mạng vào tháng Hai và tháng Mười. Em hãy cho biết:

1. Vì sao Cách mạng tháng Mười Nga năm 1917 là một sự kiện lịch sử vĩ đại nhất trong lịch sử nước Nga và lịch sử nhân loại ở thế kỉ XX?

2. Bài học kinh nghiệm rút ra từ cuộc Cách mạng tháng Mười Nga năm 1917 đối với phong trào giải phóng dân tộc ở Việt Nam.

Câu 5.(2.5 điểm)

Em hãy nêu khái quát những nét nổi bật của Châu Á từ sau năm 1945.

Câu 6.(3.5 điểm)

1. Bằng những kiến thức đã học,em hãy chứng minh sau Chiến tranh thế giới thứ hai, Mĩ vươn lên trở thành nước có nền kinh tế giàu mạnh nhất trong thế giới tư bản.

2. Từ thập niên70 của thế kỉ XX, “tuy vẫn còn đứng đầu thế giới về mọi mặt nhưng kinh tế Mĩ không còn giữ ưu thế tuyệt đối như trước kia nữa” (SGK Lịch sử 9). Em hãy nêu những nguyên nhân làm cho địa vị kinh tế của Mĩ bị suy giảm.

Thí sinh làm bài theo cách riêng mà vẫn đáp ứng các yêu cầu của đáp án thì cán bộ chấm thi cân nhắc mức độ bài làm ,đối chiếu với yêu cầu của đề thi và đáp án để cho điểm một cách phù hợp.

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