Bộ đề khảo sát năng lực Tiếng anh giáo viên

Bộ đề khảo sát năng lực Tiếng Anh giáo viên là tài liệu hữu ích giúp đánh giá toàn diện trình độ chuyên môn, năng lực ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng sư phạm của giáo viên theo yêu cầu đổi mới giáo dục hiện nay. Hệ thống đề được biên soạn bám sát các chuẩn năng lực ngoại ngữ, bao gồm các dạng bài kiểm tra từ vựng, ngữ pháp, đọc hiểu, nghe hiểu và vận dụng thực tiễn trong giảng dạy. Đây là nguồn tài liệu tham khảo quan trọng giúp giáo viên tự ôn luyện, nâng cao trình độ và chuẩn bị hiệu quả cho các kỳ khảo sát, đánh giá năng lực chuyên môn.

• Đề cương ôn tập khảo sát năng lực Tiếng Anh giáo viên phổ thông

Mẫu đề khảo sát năng lực giáo viên Tiếng Anh online

Định dạng bài thi theo Khung năng lực ngoại ngữ dùng cho Việt Nam ban hành kèm theo Thông tư số 33/2026/TT-BGDĐT ngày 15 tháng 4 năm 2026 của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo

Phục vụ Kỳ khảo sát năng lực tiếng Anh dành cho giáo viên phổ thông năm 2026 (trừ giáo viên dạy môn Tiếng Anh) của tỉnh/thành phố.

Cấu trúc bài thi

Đề mẫu

Đề thi có file nghe.

PART 1

Directions:

In this part, you will hear THREE short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.

1. What is the topic of the program?

A. Families
B. Good neighbors
C. Problems with neighbors
D. Problems with coworkers

2. Where are they?

A. In a bank
B. In a supermarket
C. At a police station
D. At a driver's license bureau

3. What will the woman probably buy?

A. a blue dress
B. a black shirt
C. a red dress
D. a dark suit

11. The Tower is at the centre of the __________.

A. Nature reserve
B. Formal gardens
C. Bicentennial Park
D. Olympic Site

12. Why did people build the Olympic site its own station?

A. To increase the use of public transport
B. To make the transport of facilities easily
C. To encourage sport athletes get to the spot on time
D. To satisfy part of the contract with the sponsors

READING TEST

Time allowance: 15 minutes

Number of questions: 12

Directions:

In this section of the test, you will read TWO different passages. For questions 1–12, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question.

READING PASSAGE 1

Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature’s way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.

Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common.

First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70–80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.

While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.

1. This passage is mainly about _________.

A. how to prevent pandemic diseases
B. what pandemic diseases are and how they spread
C. the history of pandemic diseases throughout history
D. why the 1918 flu was the deadliest pandemic

2. According to paragraph 3, what percentage of people who get the Marburg virus die from it?

A. About 30–40%
B. About 50–60%
C. About 70–80%
D. Almost 100%

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Đề mẫu khảo sát năng lực giáo viên Tiếng Anh B1, B2

ĐỀ 1 KHẢO SÁT NĂNG LỰC TIẾNG ANH GIÁO VIÊN (MÔ PHỎNG)

Thời gian: 30 phút

Số câu: 40 câu

PART I. GRAMMAR (15 QUESTIONS)

1. She ______ English at this school since 2018.

A. teaches

B. taught

C. has taught

D. is teaching

2. If I ______ more time, I would learn another language.

A. have

B. had

C. will have

D. am having

3. The report ______ yesterday.

A. completed

B. was completed

C. has completed

D. completes

4. He suggested ______ a meeting next week.

A. hold

B. to hold

C. holding

D. held

5. The woman ______ lives next door is a doctor.

A. whom

B. whose

C. who

D. which

6. By next month, they ______ the project.

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Đề mẫu khảo sát năng lực giáo viên Tiếng Anh số 1

ĐỀ THI MẪU MINH HỌA VSTEP

PHẦN 1: NGHE

Thời gian: Khoảng 40 phút

Số câu hỏi: 35

Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.

There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.

Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

PART 1 - Questions 1-8

Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.

Now, let's listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:

Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you've booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of  money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.

On the test book, you will read:

Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?

A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All

The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let's begin with the first question.

1. How many languages are taught at Hanoi International Language School?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

2. What is the boarding time of Flight VN178?

A. 3.30
B. 3.45
C. 4.15
D. 4.45

3. What will be happening in Lecture hall 4 next Monday?

A. An art workshop
B. An art exhibition
C. A history lesson
D. A talk about history of art

4. Where does the woman live?

A. Opposite the cinema
B. Next to Anna Boutique
C. On Floor 1 of C5 building
D. On Floor 3 of C5 building

5. What is the woman doing?

A. Introducing the sports centre
B. Selling equipment to the new members
C. Explaining the rules in the centre
D. Answering members' questions

6. What time do the banks open in winter?

A. 8.00 a.m.
B. 8.30 a.m.
C. 9.00 a.m.
D. 9.30 a.m.

7. What is the woman talking about?

A. How to change the topic of a term paper
B. When and where to hand in a term paper
C. How to write a term paper
D. The list of topics for a term paper

8. How is the weather today?

A. Cool all day
B. Rainy in the early morning
C. Windy at noon
D. Sunny during the day

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Đề mẫu khảo sát năng lực giáo viên Tiếng Anh số 2

CFL ENGLISH TEST

USE OF ENGLISH

40 questions - 25 minutes

Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.

“What’s she like?” - “She __________________”

A. likes going out B. takes after her mother C. is tall D. is kind

She’s one of the most ____ people I’ve ever talked to. She never says anything _____

A. boring/ interesting B. boring/ interested

C. bored/ interesting D. bored/ interested

They ______ to make up their mind as soon as possible.

A. must B. ought C. should D. have to

I have to finish this meeting and get to the airport ______.noon.

A. on B. to C. until D. by

All of the items with yellow tag ______ discounted 75% for the next 30 minutes.

A. had been B. are being C. will D. had

No one answered the door when I knocked, so they ______ already left.

A. must be B. have C. must have D. might be

Peter is going to have a birthday party ______ next Tuesday.

A. on B. at C. the D. Ø

“______ do you read books?” – “Almost every day”.

A. How long B. How much C. How D. How often

They believe that the police ______ the thief soon.

A. captures B. captured C. will capture D. have captured

Sometimes she goes out ______ night ______ Saturdays.

A. at/ in B. at/ on C. on/ at D. on/ on

Now he ______ a book about American Literature. I don’t believe he will finish it.

A. is writing B. writes C. has written D. wrote

Would you mind not ______ the radio until I’ve finished this article?

A. turning down B. turning over C. turning on D. turning off

He is getting ______ and ______

A. more/ more friendly B. friendlier/ friendlier

C. the more friendly/ the more friendly D. more friendly/ friendly

____ the way _______ France we had to fly ______ Qatar.

A. On/ to/ across B. From/ to/ over C.In/ from/ over D. On/ for/ to

The guavas look nice and they ______

A. smelled sweetly B. smelled sweet C. smell sweet D. smell sweetly

She first ______ this business in 2001.

A. starts B. started C. starting D. have started

Please return ______ two hours. I will be ready ______ then.

A. around/ until B. on/ till C. after/ by D. in/ by

I wish she’d tell me what I ______ in this tough situation.

A. ought B. should C. would D. shall

Helen, what is that terrible noise? Is there ______ on in the street?

A. something B. anything C. nothing D. everything

Most ______ students couldn’t finish the exam on time.

A. of B. some C. the D. of the

I remember ______ the package a couple of days before going on holiday.

A. receiving B. to receive C. to be received D. to have received

It is no ______ in persuading him not to follow her.

A. point B. worth C. use D. one

It was difficult for her to buy good shoes since she had such a big ______ of feet.

A. size B. form C. amount D. pair

I bought so many things that I didn’t have enough ______ for all of them.

A. room B. size C. area D. place

I admire women who can cope ______ both a job and a family.

A. against B. up C. on D. with

Please make sure to copy carefully ______ the model.

A. with B. from C. by D. on

Please ______ my best regards to your family!

A. let B. tell C. send D. say

Don’t sit on the chair ______ the leg is broken.

A. on which B. over which C. of which D. from which

I wasn’t in ______ of his idea about the renovation.

A. agreement B. content C. satisfied D. favor

.................

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