Bộ đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World năm 2024-2025
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Cấu trúc Đề kiểm tra cuối HK1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World theo chương trình mới gồm đầy đủ các dạng bài kiểm tra về từ vựng, ngữ pháp môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6, phân loại học sinh theo 4 mức độ: Nhận biết, Thông hiểu, Vận dụng, Vận dụng cao. Sau đây là nội dung chi tiết bộ Đề thi cuối học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World, mời các bạn cùng tham khảo và tải về.
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1. Ma trận Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World
MA TRẬN ĐỀ KT HỌC KỲ I – TA6 SMART WORLD
CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC | Tổng số câu | |||||||||
Kỹ năng | Dạng bài | NHẬN BIẾT | THÔNG HIỂU | VẬN DỤNG | VẬN DỤNG CAO | |||||
Trắc nghiệm | Tự luận | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | |||
Listening (1pt) | Q2,3 | Q1,4 | 4 | |||||||
Pronunciation (0.5pts) | Stress | Q5,6 | 2 | |||||||
Writing (Use of English) (2pts) | Vocabulary Preposition Grammar | Q10 | Q11,12 | Q7,9 | Q8 | 6 | ||||
Signs | Q15,16 | 2 | ||||||||
Speaking (0.5pts) | Q13,14 | 2 | ||||||||
Reading (3pts) | Reading comprehension | Q19 | Q21,22 | Q18 | Q20 | Q17 | 6 | |||
Guided cloze | Q27,28 | Q23,24 | Q26 | Q25 | 6 | |||||
Writing (3pts) | Verb form/ verb tense (1pt) | Q32 | Q30 | Q29, 31 | 4 | |||||
Rearrange the words (0.5pt) | Q33 | Q34 | 2 | |||||||
Make questions (0.75pt) | Q35,36 | Q37 | 3 | |||||||
Sentence transformation (0.75pt) | Q38,39 | Q40 | 3 | |||||||
Tổng (10pts) | 6 | 8 | 8 | 5 | 3 | 6 | 2 | 2 | ||
14 câu 35% | 13 câu 32.5% | 9 câu 22.5% | 4 câu 10% | 40 câu |
- Trắc nghiệm: 19 câu (47.5%) Tự luận: 21 câu (52.5%)
- All sentences: 0.25đ/ câu
10 EXTRA SENTENCES:
CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC | Tổng số câu | |||||||||
Kỹ năng | Dạng bài | NHẬN BIẾT | THÔNG HIỂU | VẬN DỤNG | VẬN DỤNG CAO | |||||
Trắc nghiệm | Tự luận | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | |||
Use of English | Q1,2 | 1 | ||||||||
Reading | Cloze test | Q1,5 | Q3,4,6 | Q2 | 6 | |||||
Writing | Rearrange the sentences | Q1 | 2 | |||||||
Make question | Q1 |
2. Đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World học kì 1 đề 1
I. Listening:
You will hear a teacher talking to her new class. Listen and complete each question with ONE word and/or a number. (1 point)
Name of teacher: | Susan Brown |
Lessons start at: | (1) |
In the morning, everybody studies | (2) English, science and |
Food for lunch | (3) sandwich, and orange juice |
On Sunday | (4) show |
II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)
5. A. noodles B. dessert C. order D. sweater
6. A. performance B. festival C. library D. customer
III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
7. We ________ the sausages on the barbecue. They taste wonderful.
A. fry B. serve C. pour D. grill
8. Would you like to see the dessert ________?
A. menu B. order C. tip D. service
9. There’s a ________ on TV tonight. You can see many dancers in their traditional clothes.
A. fashion show B. tug of war C. dance performance D. fireworks
10. Do you have this skirt ________ a medium size?
A. with B. on C. for D. in
11. I like ________ shoes by the window. Do you have ________ in black?
A. that/ it B. this/ them C. those/ them D. these/ it
12. Would you like ________ bread and cheese for lunch?
A. a B. some C. any D. the
13. Waiter: “What would you like for dessert?”
Customer: “________”
A. I’d like an omelet. B. A cupcake, please.
C. I don’t like coffee. D. I prefer tea.
14. Customer: “Do you have this dress in white?”
Sales assistant: “________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, it is. C. Yes, here you are. D. Yes, it’s OK.
15. What does the sign mean?
A. There is a lot of food here. B. Please order your food here. C. You can find your food here. D. Please eat and drink here. |
16. What does the sign mean?
A. Please be quiet here. B. Please don’t play here. C. There aren’t any people here. D. You can’t be here. |
IV. Reading comprehension.
Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)
My name is Quanzhou and I’m from China. My favorite time of the year is Chinese New Year. People decorate houses and streets with lanterns and flowers many days before New Year festival. Everything is red and gold, because they’re the lucky colors. People give children lucky money in red envelops, and they also give friends mandarin oranges for good luck. The New Year’s Eve dinner is called Reunion Dinner. People in the family sit together, talk and enjoy the traditional food. One special dish is Nian Gao. People make Nian Gao with sugar and rice. We also eat fish, chicken and dumplings. After dinner we watch the New Year music performance on TV. At midnight, we can see fireworks in the sky. The colors are amazing. There are parades and lion dances in the streets, too.
* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point) | True or False |
17. People decorate their houses during New Year festivals. | |
18. Red and gold are lucky colors in China. | |
19. Children receive lucky money in red envelops. | |
20. People eat fish, chicken and mandarin oranges for Reunion Dinner. |
* Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)
21. What do people give to friends for good luck?
A. Nian Gao B. mandarin oranges
C. money D. flowers
22. What do people make Nian Gao with?
A. fish and chicken B. rice and dumplings
C. sugar and rice D. fish and rice
V. Cloze test
Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My best friend is Joe. He’s nine years old like me. Joe lives in a small house with his parents. Joe’s tall and quite fat. He (23) __________ big brown eyes and short hair. Joe and I spend a lot of time together. We both like sports. We often (24) __________ martial arts after school. We are in the school karate club. Joe is a great friend. He’s very (25) __________. He helps me when I can’t do my homework. He’s also good at magic. He’s going to sign up for the (26) __________ next month. Next Saturday is his birthday. We (27) __________ a party with chicken pasta and cola. I’ll buy a T-shirt for him. His favorite color is blue, so I’m going to look for a beautiful one (28) __________ blue.
23. A. wears B. has C. is D. looks
24. A. do B. play C. go D. join
25. A. funny B. friendly C. selfish D. helpful
26. A. tug of war B. puppet C. talent show D. fashion show
27. A. are having B. has C. have D. having
28. A. on B. for C. with D. in
VI. Verb forms and verb tenses
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
29. My sister and I _________ (go) shopping tomorrow. Do you want to join us?
30. Harry _________ (practice) the piano on Fridays.
31. What time _______ the festival _________ (open)?
32. I like _________ (read) at home, in my bedroom.
VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)
33. often/ with/ on/ play/ I/ weekends/ hopscotch/ my/ the/ friends/./
……………………………………..……………………………………..……………………
34. children/ on/ costumes/ trick-or-treating/ Halloween/ wear/ go/ and/./
……………………………………..……………………………………..……………………
VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)
35. Sam rarely goes running.……………………………………..................
36. The new teacher is very kind and funny.
……………………………………..……………………………………..……………………
37. This jacket is twenty dollars.
……………………………………..……………………………………..……………………
IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)
38. I want to have a cheeseburger.
→ I would ……………………………………………………..…………………………
39. Why don’t we go to the movie theater?
→ Let’s ….……………………………………..……………………………...................
40. Simon likes playing soccer in his free time.
→ Simon’s hobby……………………..……………………………………..………………
` THE END `
EXTRA QUESTIONS
Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)
1. Andy is very lazy. He never does ________ housework.
A. some B. a C. any D. lot
2. First, you will ________ the steak and chips in hot oil.
A. make B. grill C. taste D. fry
Cloze test:
Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My name is Paulo and I live in Rio de Janeiro. My father is an engineer and my mum (1) __________ in a local hospital. I have a brother. We live in an apartment in the city. There are two bedrooms. One bedroom is for my parents, so I share the other with my brother. We also have a kitchen, a living room and a bathroom. (2) __________ a garage, so my father parks his car in front of the house. When I want to be on my own, I go out. We live (3) __________ the park. I often meet my friends there and we (4) __________ hide and seek. Rio is (5) __________ exciting city. Every year there’s Carnival festival. It’s a huge street party with parades, music and dancing performances. People wear masks and colorful (6) __________. They play drums and dance samba until 4a.m.
1. A. is work B. works C. work D. working
2. A. There is B. It is C. There isn’t D. It doesn’t have
3. A. opposite B. in front C. between D. next
4. A. go B. do C. play D. have
5. A. a B. some C. any D. an
6. A. clothe B. costumes C. gifts D. sizes
Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)
1. clubs/ usually/ you/ after/ do/ go/ school/ What/ to/?/
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)
1. How much are these jeans?
→ What is ……………………………..……………………………………..………………………
3. Đáp án Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World đề 1
TA6 SMART WORLD – SEMESTER 1 TEST
ANSWER KEY
Time allotted: 60 minutes
I. Listening:
You will hear a teacher talking to her new class. Listen and complete each question. (1 point)
Name of teacher: | Susan Brown |
Lessons start at: | (1) 9 (9 a.m./ 9 o’ clock) |
In the morning, everybody studies | (2) English, science and math |
Food for lunch | (3) sandwich, ___soup and orange juice |
On Sunday | (4) puppet ____show |
Tapescripts:
Good morning and welcome to our first day at Lincoln School. My name’s Susan Brown and I’m your teacher for this year. I’d like you to listen carefully to this important information. You all must be here in the classroom at 8:45 in the morning. I’ll check your names and the first lesson begins at 9 o’ clock. In the morning, you are all together in this classroom for English, Science and Math. Lunch break is at 12 o’ clock. Students can have lunch in the canteen. You can have sandwiches, soup and orange juice. After lunch, please get back to your classroom to study art and music. If you love performing, you can join the drama club on Saturdays. To join the club, sign up on the noticeboard. And finally, there’s a puppet show this Sunday. Don’t forget to come. I hope you’ll enjoy it. I think that’s all for now. Do you have any questions?
II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)
5. A. noodles B. dessert C. order D. sweater
6. A. performance B. festival C. library D. customer
III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
7. We ________ the sausages on the barbecue. They taste wonderful.
A. fry B. serve C. pour D. grill
8. Would you like to see the dessert ________?
A. menu B. order C. tip D. service
9. There’s a ________ on TV tonight. You can see many dancers in their traditional clothes.
A. fashion show B. tug of war C. dance performance D. fireworks
10. Do you have this skirt ________ a medium size?
A. with B. on C. for D. in
11. I like ________ shoes by the window. Do you have ________ in black?
A. that/ it B. this/ them C. those/ them D. these/ it
12. Would you like ________ bread and cheese for lunch?
A. a B. some C. any D. the
13. Waiter: “What would you like for dessert?”
Customer: “________”
A. I’d like an omelet.
B. A cupcake, please.
C. I don’t like coffee.
D. I prefer tea.
14. Customer: “Do you have this dress in white?”
Sales assistant: “________”
A. Yes, I am.
B. Yes, it is.
C. Yes, here you are.
D. Yes, it’s OK.
15. What does the sign mean?
A. There is a lot of food here. B. Please order your food here. C. You can find your food here. D. Please eat and drink here. |
16. What does the sign mean?
A. Please be quiet here. B. Please don’t play here. C. There aren’t any people here. D. You can’t be here. |
IV. Reading comprehension.
Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)
My name is Quanzhou and I’m from China. My favorite time of the year is Chinese New Year. People decorate houses and streets with lanterns and flowers many days before New Year festival. Everything is red and gold, because they’re the lucky colors. People give children lucky money in red envelops, and they also give friends mandarin oranges for good luck. The New Year’s Eve dinner is called Reunion Dinner. People in the family sit together, talk and enjoy the traditional food. One special dish is Nian Gao. People make Nian Gao with sugar and rice. We also eat fish, chicken and dumplings. After dinner we watch the New Year music performance on TV. At midnight, we can see fireworks in the sky. The colors are amazing. There are parades and lion dances in the streets, too.
- mandarin /'mændərin/ (n) : quả quýt
- dumpling /'dʌmpiη/ (n) : bánh bao nhân trái cây
* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)
True or False | |
17. People decorate their houses during New Year festivals. | False |
18. Red and gold are lucky colors in China. | True |
19. Children receive lucky money in red envelops. | True |
20. People eat fish, chicken and mandarin oranges for Reunion Dinner. | False |
* Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)
21. What do people give to friends for good luck?
A. Nian Gao B. mandarin oranges
C. money D. flowers
22. What do people make Nian Gao with?
A. fish and chicken B. rice and dumplings
C. sugar and rice D. fish and rice
Cloze test
Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My best friend is Joe. He’s nine years old like me. Joe lives in a small house with his parents. Joe’s tall and quite fat. He (23) __________ big brown eyes and short hair. Joe and I spend a lot of time together. We both like sports. We often (24) __________ martial arts after school. We are in the school’s karate club. Joe is a great friend. He’s very (25) __________. He helps me when I can’t do my homework. He’s also good at magic. He’s going to sign up for the (26) __________ next month. Next Saturday is his birthday. We (27) __________ a party with chicken pasta and cola. I’ll buy a T-shirt for him. His favorite color is blue, so I’m going to look for a beautiful one (28) __________ blue.
23. A. wears B. has C. is D. looks
24. A. do B. play C. go D. join
25. A. funny B. friendly C. selfish D. helpful
26. A. tug of war B. puppet C. talent show D. fashion show
27. A. are having B. has C. have D. having
28. A. on B. for C. with D. in
VI. Verb forms and verb tenses
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
29. My sister and I _are going________ (go) shopping tomorrow. Do you want to join us?
30. Harry _practices________ (practice) the piano on Fridays.
31. What time __does_____ the festival ___open______ (open)?
32. I like __reading_______ (read) at home, in my bedroom.
VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)
33. often/ with/ on/ play/ I/ weekends/ hopscotch/ my/ the/ friends/./
I often play hopscotch with my friends on the weekends.
34. children/ on/ costumes/ trick-or-treating/ Halloween/ wear/ go/ and/./
Children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
On Halloween, children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating.
VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)
35. Sam rarelygoes running.
How often does Sam go running?
36. The new teacher is very kind and funny.
What is the new teacher like?
37. This jacket is twenty dollars.
How much is this jacket? / How much does this jacket cost?
IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)
38. I want to have a cheeseburger.
→ I would like to have a cheeseburger.
- Why don’t we go to the movie theater?
→ Let’s go to the movie theater.
- Simon likes playing soccer in his free time.
→ Simon’s hobby is playing soccer (in his free time).
4. Đề thi học kì 1 Anh 6 Smart World có đáp án đề 2
5. Đề thi học kì 1 Anh 6 Smart World có đáp án đề 3
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Bộ đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 I-learn Smart World có đáp án với đầy đủ đề kiểm tra 15 phút, 45 sẽ giúp học sinh làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi mới và rèn luyện các kỹ năng Listening, Pronunciation, Writing, Speaking, Reading, Writing để làm bài kiểm tra đạt điểm cao. Ngoài ra, các em học sinh có thể tham gia group Bạn Đã Học Bài Chưa? trên Facebook để thảo luận học tập và giải đáp bất cứ điều gì chưa hiểu nhé, thành viên trong nhóm sẽ giúp đỡ rất tận tình.
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