Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 học kì 2 (Có ma trận, đáp án)

Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 môn tiếng Anh 9 2024 được Hoatieu chia sẻ đến các em trong bài viết này là mẫu đề thi cuối kì 2 lớp 9 môn tiếng Anh mới nhất có đáp án chi tiết giúp các em học sinh có thêm tài liệu ôn thi cuối kì 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 9. Sau đây là nội dung đề thi học kì 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 sách có ma trận, file nghe. Mời các em cùng tham khảo.

• (Cực hay) 60 đề đọc hiểu Ngữ văn 9 có đáp án (208 trang)

1. Ma trận đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 9

TEST	MARK	TASK TYPES	No. of Ques	Mark	CONTENTS	Recog	Comp	Application
								Low	High
LISTENING	(2.0)	Listen and decide true/false	4	1.0	Listening for specific information about learning English	0.5	0.5
		Listen and choose the correct answer	4	1.0	Listen for specific information about Space adventures plans	1.0
LANGUAGE COMPONENTS	(3.0)	Phonetics	2	0.5	Distinguish sounds: /ai/ and /i/, Stress the first/second	0.5
		Speaking	1	0.25	Useful expressions		0.25
		Vocabulary	4	1.0	Correct form/ words about people, thing	0.5	0.5
		Grammar	5	1,25	- Past simple and past perfect/quantifiers/relative clause/ Article/ Conditional type 1	1.25
READING	(2,5)	Gap fill	6	1.5	Read for specific information about Pham Tuan	0.5	1.0
		Read again and choose the best answer	4	1.0	Read for specific details about Pham Tuan	0.75	0.25
WRITING	(2.5)	Rewrite each pair of sentences as one sentence	2	1.0	- Defining relative clause - Non- defining relative clause			1.0
		Rewrite the sentences according to the instructions given in brackets.	3	1.5	Future passive/ Conditional type 2/ phrasal verb		0.5	1.0
TOTAL	10.0		35	10.0		5.0	3.0	2.0	0

2. Đề thi cuối học kì 2 Anh 9 có đáp án 2024

A. LISTENING (2.0 points)

The listening test consists of two parts. You will hear each part twice.

I (1,0 pt): Listen to four different people talking about speaking and learning language and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

1. Speaker 1 is not good at German. ________

2. Speaker 2 can have a conversation in Italian, but it’s a bit rusty. ________

3. Speaker 3 used to be quite good at English. ________

4. Speaker 4 had to learn English for her job. ________

II (1,0 pt): Listen to a talk about space tourism and choose the best option.

5. The year when Space Adventures plans to launch its ‘Circumlunar Mission is______.

A. 2015

B. 2008

C. 2018

6. The distance from the moon that clients can be taken to is _____________kms.

A. 100

B. 1,000

C. 10

7. ____________people have signed up to travel into space with Virgin Galactic.

A. 70

B. 700

C. 17

8. The price of the deposit for a spaceflight on a Virgin Galactic spacecraft is_______ USD. . .

A. 200,000

B. 215,000

C. 250,000

B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (3.0 points)

I (2,5 pts): Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

9. Find the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.

A. affordable

B. responsive

C. habitable

D. financial

10. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently.

A. meteorite

B. sprinkle

C. satellite

D. bilingual

11. Jane: “What do you think of the newly discovered cave?” Mary: “ _________________.”

A. Never mind

B. By the way

C. Oh, fantastic

D. That’s right

12. Gagarin ___________ into space eight years before Armstrong __________ on the moon.

A. had flown / walked

B. flew/ walked

C. has flown/ walked

D. flew /had walked

13. A(n) __________is a person who supports the family with the money he/she earns.

A. facilitator

B. applicant

C. developer

D. breadwinner

14. My mother usually has a___________ of cereal and some milk for breakfast.

A. stick

B. bunch

C. head

D. bowl

15 . There are several reasons ____________ I don't like English.

A. whose

B. which

C. why

D. whom

16. I have __________older brother and ______younger sister.

A. an/ a

B. an/ an

C. a/ a

D. a/ an

17. If you don’t want to get burnt, you ___________follow these safety instructions.

A. will

B. may

C. must

D. can

18. With a _______ you can have a great experience watching the stars.

A. rocket

B. telescope

C. satellite

D. spacecraft

II (0,5 pt): Use the correct form of the word given to complete each sentence.

19. Canada has two ____________languages: English and French. (OFFICE)

20. Even in distant areas, the teacher will no longer be the only ________ of knowledge.(PROVIDE)

C. READING (2.5 points)

I (1,5 pts): Complete the passage, using the words in the box.

Pham Tuan stepped onto a spaceship with a special (21)________. Another record was broken: The first Vietnamese, the first Asian, stepped onto a space station. That Vietnamese man brought into space the Declaration of Independence and the will of President Ho Chi Minh as well as a national red flag with a yellow star. Pham Tuan had a (22)________ to view Vietnam from space. During the first days of the (23)_________he also saw the sun that shone on the earth strongly Pham Tuan recognized the familiar shape of his country though the (24)_______ made it difficult for him. However, there were lots of clouds then. In his free time, Pham Tuan always sat by the window with binoculars in his hands, hoping to see the S-shape land. Sometimes, he broke the (25) _______ to go to bed and sat at the command center to watch. After 7 days, 20 hours and 42 minutes with 142 orbits, it was time for Pham Tuan to return to the earth. The moving meeting took (26)_______ in Star City where Pham Tuan's father was waiting to welcome him back.

II (1,0pt): Read the passage again carefully then choose the best option.

27. What did Pham Tuan step onto?

A. a spaceship

B. a train

C. plane

D. a ship

28. He brought_________ among other things, with him into space.

A. a suitcase

B his national flag

C. a camera

D. his family album

29. In his free time, Pham Tuan always sat by the window, hoping to___________ .

A. bring into space

B. see lots of clouds

C. return the earth

D. see the S-shape land

30. How long was his historic flight into space?

A. 142 orbits

B. 20 hours

C. 42 minutes

D. 7 days, 20 hours and 42 minutes

D. WRITING (2.5 points)

I (1,0pt): Rewrite each pair of sentences as one sentence using a relative clause.

31. The team plays on the left. The team has never won the championship.

___________________________________________________________________________.

32. Many tourists visit Liverpool. Liverpool is the home of The Beatles.

___________________________________________________________________________.

II (1,5 pts): Rewrite the sentences according to the instructions given in brackets.

33. They will build more flyovers to reduce traffic in the city. (Using Passive voice)

" More flyovers _____________________________________________________________.

34. I don’t feel confident at interviews because my English is not very good.

(Using conditional sentence type II)

" If my English_____________________________________________________________ .

35. I/ on holidays./ can get/ in German/ by / (Rearrange the words to make complete sentences)

" _______________________________________________________________________ .

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