Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World năm 2025 - 2026

Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World năm 2025 - 2026 gồm 2 đề thi, có file nghe, đáp án, ma trận, bản đặc tả, trình bày khoa học, giúp thầy cô tham khảo để xây dựng đề kiểm tra học kì 1 lớp 6.

Với 2 Đề kiểm tra học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World giúp thầy cô có thêm nhiều kinh nghiệm để xây dựng đề thi học học kì 1 năm 2025 - 2026 cho học sinh của mình. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi môn Tiếng Anh 6 Global Success. Mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây.

1. File nghe đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

UBND HUYỆN_________ PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Năm học 2024 - 2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

TA6 SMART WORLD – SEMESTER 1 TEST
Time allotted: 60 minutes

I. Listening:

You will hear a teacher talking to her new class. Listen and complete each question with ONE word and/or a number. (1 point)

Name of teacher: Susan Brown

Lessons start at: (1)...................................................................................................

In the morning, everybody studies (2) English, science and......................................

Food for lunch (3) sandwich, ...................................... and orange juice

On Sunday ......................................(4) show

II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

5. A. noodles B. dessert C. order D. sweater

6. A. performance B. festival C. library D. customer

III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

7. We ________ the sausages on the barbecue. They taste wonderful.

A. fry
B. serve
C. pour
D. grill

8. Would you like to see the dessert ________?

A. menu
B. order
C. tip
D. service

9. There’s a ________ on TV tonight. You can see many dancers in their traditional clothes.

A. fashion show
B. tug of war
C. dance performance
D. fireworks

10. Do you have this skirt ________ a medium size?

A. with
B. on
C. for
D. in

11. I like ________ shoes by the window. Do you have ________ in black?

A. that/ it
B. this/ them
C. those/ them
D. these/ it

12. Would you like ________ bread and cheese for lunch?

A. a
B. some
C. any
D. the

13. Waiter: “What would you like for dessert?”

Customer: “________”

A. I’d like an omelet.
B. A cupcake, please.
C. I don’t like coffee.
D. I prefer tea.

14. Customer: “Do you have this dress in white?”

Sales assistant: “________”

A. Yes, I am.
B. Yes, it is.
C. Yes, here you are.
D. Yes, it’s OK.

15. What does the sign mean?

A. There is a lot of food here.
B. Please order your food here.
C. You can find your food here.
D. Please eat and drink here.

16. What does the sign mean?

A. Please be quiet here.
B. Please don’t play here.
C. There aren’t any people here.
D. You can’t be here.

IV. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)

My name is Quanzhou and I’m from China. My favorite time of the year is Chinese New Year. People decorate houses and streets with lanterns and flowers many days before New Year festival. Everything is red and gold, because they’re the lucky colors. People give children lucky money in red envelops, and they also give friends mandarin oranges for good luck. The New Year’s Eve dinner is called Reunion Dinner. People in the family sit together, talk and enjoy the traditional food. One special dish is Nian Gao. People make Nian Gao with sugar and rice. We also eat fish, chicken and dumplings. After dinner we watch the New Year music performance on TV. At midnight, we can see fireworks in the sky. The colors are amazing. There are parades and lion dances in the streets, too.

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

	True or False
17. People decorate their houses during New Year festivals. 18. Red and gold are lucky colors in China. 19. Children receive lucky money in red envelops. 20. People eat fish, chicken and mandarin oranges for Reunion Dinner.	........................ ........................ ........................ ........................

* Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)

21. What do people give to friends for good luck?

A. Nian Gao
B. mandarin oranges
C. money
D. flowers

22. What do people make Nian Gao with?

A. fish and chicken
B. rice and dumplings
C. sugar and rice
D. fish and rice

V. Cloze test

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My best friend is Joe. He’s nine years old like me. Joe lives in a small house with his parents. Joe’s tall and quite fat. He (23) __________ big brown eyes and short hair. Joe and I spend a lot of time together. We both like sports. We often (24) __________ martial arts after school. We are in the school karate club. Joe is a great friend. He’s very (25) __________. He helps me when I can’t do my homework. He’s also good at magic. He’s going to sign up for the (26) __________ next month. Next Saturday is his birthday. We (27) __________ a party with chicken pasta and cola. I’ll buy a T-shirt for him. His favorite color is blue, so I’m going to look for a beautiful one (28) __________ blue.

23. A. wears B. has C. is D. looks

24. A. do B. play C. go D. join

25. A. funny B. friendly C. selfish D. helpful

26. A. tug of war B. puppet C. talent show D. fashion show

27. A. are having B. has C. have D. having

28. A. on B. for C. with D. in

VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

29. My sister and I _________ (go) shopping tomorrow. Do you want to join us?

30. Harry _________ (practice) the piano on Fridays.

31. What time _______ the festival _________ (open)?

32. I like _________ (read) at home, in my bedroom.

VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

33. often/ with/ on/ play/ I/ weekends/ hopscotch/ my/ the/ friends/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

34. children/ on/ costumes/ trick-or-treating/ Halloween/ wear/ go/ and/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

35. Sam rarely goes running.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

36. The new teacher is very kind and funny.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

37. This jacket is twenty dollars.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)

38. I want to have a cheeseburger.

→ I would ……………………………………………………..…………………………………

39. Why don’t we go to the movie theater?

→ Let’s ….……………………………………..……………………………...

40. Simon likes playing soccer in his free time.

→ Simon’s hobby……………………..……………………………………..………………………

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)

1. Andy is very lazy. He never does ________ housework.

A. some
B. a
C. any
D. lot

2. First, you will ________ the steak and chips in hot oil.

A. make
B. grill
C. taste
D. fry

Cloze test:

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My name is Paulo and I live in Rio de Janeiro. My father is an engineer and my mum (1) __________ in a local hospital. I have a brother. We live in an apartment in the city. There are two bedrooms. One bedroom is for my parents, so I share the other with my brother. We also have a kitchen, a living room and a bathroom. (2) __________ a garage, so my father parks his car in front of the house. When I want to be on my own, I go out. We live (3) __________ the park. I often meet my friends there and we (4) __________ hide and seek. Rio is (5) __________ exciting city. Every year there’s Carnival festival. It’s a huge street party with parades, music and dancing performances. People wear masks and colorful (6) __________. They play drums and dance samba until 4a.m.

1. A. is work B. works C. work D. working

2. A. There is B. It is C. There isn’t D. It doesn’t have

3. A. opposite B. in front C. between D. next

4. A. go B. do C. play D. have

5. A. a B. some C. any D. an

6. A. clothe B. costumes C. gifts D. sizes

Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)

1. clubs/ usually/ you/ after/ do/ go/ school/ What/ to/?/

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)

1. How much are these jeans?

→ What is ……………………………..……………………………………..………………………

3. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

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4. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World

		CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG		VẬN DỤNG CAO
		Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Listening (1pt)			Q2,3		Q1,4					4
Pronunciation (0.5pts)	Stress	Q5,6								2
Writing (Use of English) (2pts)	Vocabulary Preposition Grammar	Q10		Q11,12		Q7,9		Q8		6
	Signs			Q15,16						2
Speaking (0.5pts)				Q13,14						2
Reading (3pts)	Reading comprehension	Q19	Q21,22		Q18		Q20		Q17	6
	Guided cloze	Q27,28		Q23,24		Q26		Q25		6
Writing (3pts)	Verb form/ verb tense (1pt)		Q32		Q30		Q29, 31			4
	Rearrange the words (0.5pt)		Q33				Q34			2
	Make questions (0.75pt)		Q35,36		Q37					3
	Sentence transformation (0.75pt)						Q38,39		Q40	3
Tổng (10pts)		6	8	8	5	3	6	2	2
		14 câu 35%		13 câu 32.5%		9 câu 22.5%		4 câu 10%		40 câu

Trắc nghiệm: 19 câu (47.5%)

Tự luận: 21 câu (52.5%)

All sentences: 0.25đ/ câu

10 EXTRA SENTENCES:

		CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG		VẬN DỤNG CAO
		Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Use of English								Q1,2		1
Reading	Cloze test			Q1,5		Q3,4,6		Q2		6
Writing	Rearrange the sentences								Q1	2
	Make question								Q1

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